Can Someone Explain this Situation?

In my market, there is a full risk medical group that dominates the market. It contracts with two MAPDS (MA #1 & MA #2). MA1 has about 50% of the MA market, while MA2 has slightly richer benefits and also includes comprehensive dental as an added bonus, but newer and less market share. MA2 actually provides an allowance for dental, it's not JUST a "discount". Yet, MA1 is sold to prospects EVEN when there is an obvious need for dental benefit, which it does not provide.
A certain well-connected agent (AGENT ZERO) has produced over 800 MA1 apps YTD. I believe that this agent's Upline
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